An inequality involving 2n numbers
نویسنده
چکیده
We are going to discuss in brief and without proof the equality case in Theorem 1.1. Before we can do this, we need to establish a notation: The notation (a1; a2; :::; an) (b1; b2; :::; bn) is going to mean that for every two numbers i and j from the set f1; 2; :::; ng ; we have aibj = biaj: Note that if all numbers b1; b2; :::; bn are nonzero, then (a1; a2; :::; an) (b1; b2; :::; bn) is equivalent to a1 b1 = a2 b2 =
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